Between the Testaments
1) Why is it that there was a “gap” of 400 silent years? 2) Is this prophesied in the OT just like the other prophecies fulfilled in the NT? 3) What is the importance of studying this “400 Silent Years”? 4) Does it has a bearing in our spiritual belief and in our salvation? 5) Were these events during this intertestamental period have influences in the Jewish beliefs and in Christianity? 6) Did it affect the Jewish belief? Favorably or unfavorably? Yours truly, Gabriel M. Policarpio The only biblical explanation of which I am aware for there being a gap of 400 years between the ending of Old Testament prophecy and the commencement of the New Testament era is that both the ending of Old Testament prophecy and the commencement of the New Testament era with resumption of divine revelation corresponded to the divine timetable. “But when the fulness of the time was come, God sent forth his Son, made of a woman, made under the law, To redeem them that were under the law, that we might receive the adoption of sons” (Galatians 4:4-5 emphasis added). “Who verily was foreordained before the foundation of the world, but was manifest in these last times for you” (1 Peter 1:20). See also Ephesians 1:10 and 1 Timothy 2:6. I am not aware of Old Testament prophecy that predicts 400 years of silence between the testaments, but it is a mistaken notion that prophecy or revelation from God was constant anyway, even during …